??? 03/01/07 05:22 Modified: 03/01/07 05:24 Read: times |
#133987 - Some answers... Responding to: ???'s previous message |
Suresh said:
So if i give say 0.5Vdc at '+' input and 0Vdc at '-' input (excluding DC Characteristics since it should be compensated) without any feedback for gain adjustment and i use a bipolar supply of +/-10V, then i would get an output voltage of +10Vdc (voltage output) that sources some amount of current which a datasheet would say. Is it correct? Yes, but you will not get exactly +10VDC at the output, when using a TL072, or the LF412 of your example. About 1...2V will drop across the internal transistors. But you are right, the output looks like a voltage source, which tries to emit the absolute maximum output voltage possible, just because the input is so heavily overdriven. Suresh said:
My doubt is why do you say "atleast -10V" when the output voltage is going to be -14V (which would fall on 2k)when the '-' input is higher than '+' input? Not exactly clear what you mean. But, the output tries to emit its maximum possible output voltage, which is about -14V typically without load and about 13.5V typically with 10kOhm load. For a load of 2kOhm the output is guaranteed to emit at least -10V. So, it can also be -11.3876543V or 12.99998765V, but that's not guaranteed. Just have a look into the datasheet... Suresh said:
I couldnt analyse how it changes to asymmetric with that voltage source and what would be the voltage drop at R3 for a particular voltage set with that voltage source. But that's quite simple! ![]() If the lower terminal of R3 is at 5V, for instance, then the upper terminal is at 7.5V, when the output of OPamp emits +10V and at -2.5V, when the output emits -10V. These different threshold voltages mean, that the cap is charged/discharged with differently high currents, resulting in an asymmetric waveform. Kai |